PRMIA PRM Certification - Exam III: Risk Management Frameworks, Operational Risk, Credit Risk, Counterparty Risk, Market Risk, ALM, FTP - 2015 Edition - 8008 Exam Practice Test

An error by a third party service provider results in a loss to a client that the bank has to make up. Such as loss would be categorized per Basel II operational risk categories as:

Which of the following formulae correctly describes Component VaR. (p refers to the portfolio, and i is the i-th constituent of the portfolio. MVaR means Marginal VaR, and other symbols have their usual meanings.)

The standalone economic capital estimates for the three business units of a bank are $100, $200 and $150 respectively. What is the combined economic capital for the bank, assuming the risks of the three business units are perfectly correlated?

The Altman credit risk score considers:

If the marginal probabilities of default for a corporate bond for years 1, 2 and 3 are 2%, 3% and 4% respectively, what is the cumulative probability of default at the end of year 3?

For a security with a daily standard deviation of 2%, calculate the 10-day VaR at the 95% confidence level.
Assume expected daily returns to be nil.

Which of the following was not a policy response introduced by Basel 2.5 in response to the global financial crisis:

Which of the following risks and reasons justify the use of scenario analysis in operational risk modeling:
I. Risks for which no internal loss data is available
II. Risks that are foreseeable but have no precedent, internally or externally III. Risks for which objective assessments can be made by experts IV. Risks that are known to exist, but for which no reliable external or internal losses can be analyzed
V. Reducing the complexity of having to fit statistical models to internal and external loss data VI. Managing the capital estimation process as to produce estimates in line with management's desired capital buffers.

For a US based investor, what is the 10-day value-at risk at the 95% confidence level of a long spot position of EUR 15m, where the volatility of the underlying exchange rate is 16% annually. The current spot rate for EUR is 1.5. (Assume 250 trading days in a year).

Which of the following are likely to be useful to a risk manager analyzing liquidity risk for an international bank?
I. Information on liquidity mismatches
II. Funding concentration
III. Lending concentration
IV. A report on illiquid assets

There are three bonds in a diversified bond portfolio, whose default probabilities are independent of each other and equal to 1%, 2% and 3% respectively over a 1 year time horizon. Calculate the probability that none of the three bonds will default.

Which of the following statements are true:
I. Top down approaches help focus management attention on the frequency and severity of loss events, while bottom up approaches do not.
II. Top down approaches rely upon high level data while bottom up approaches need firm specific risk data to estimate risk.
III. Scenario analysis can help capture both qualitative and quantitative dimensions of operational risk.

Who has the ultimate responsibility for the overall stress testing programme of an institution?