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ISC CISSP PDF Questions - Exceptional Practice To Certified Information Systems Security Professional
How to Prepare for CISSP exam: Certified Information Systems Security Professional
Preparation Guide for CISSP exam: Certified Information Systems Security Professional
Introduction to CISSP exam: Certified Information Systems Security Professional
The CISSP test is important for the ISC Institute Certification. This test estimates your capacity in researching Cyber Crimes and working ordinarily against noxious programmers following Digital Evidence to arraign Cyber Criminals. Ensured Information Systems Security Professional - CISSP test is an expert confirmation that actions your abilities to achieve progressed tasks to battle malignant programmers. This confirmation test is a first class approach to exhibit your insight, advance your vocation and become an individual from a local area of network safety world. It shows you have everything necessary to configuration, specialist, execute and run a data security program. The competitors ought to likewise have a solid arrangement over hacking assaults and they ought to appropriately separating proof to report the wrongdoing and direct reviews to forestall future assaults getting little and huge undertaking.
The certificate is ideal for those working in jobs, for example, Security Consultant, Security Analyst, Security Manager, IT Director/Manager, Network Architect, Director of Security, Security Auditor, Security Architect, Security Systems Engineer, Chief Information Security Officer. The crowd ordinarily incorporates spies, strategy man, execution advisors, security group leads and venture directors, police and other law implementation staff, Defense and Military work force, Systems executives, Banking, Insurance and different experts, Government offices and IT administrators. The Web Simulator with a ISC CISSP practice tests and ISC CISSP practice exams will help you in audit, invigorate and extend your data security information (counting data security ideas and industry best practices). The CISSP Exam is an extremely confounded test and its span depends on 3 Hours with 100-150 Questions to be replied.
NEW QUESTION 210
In the context of Biometric authentication, what is a quick way to compare the accuracy of devices. In general, the device that have the lowest value would be the most accurate. Which of the following would be used to compare accuracy of devices?
- A. the FRR is used
- B. the FAR is used
- C. the CER is used.
- D. The FER is used
Answer: C
Explanation:
equal error rate or crossover error rate (EER or CER): the rate at which both accept and reject errors are equal. The value of the EER can be easily obtained from the ROC curve. The EER is a quick way to compare the accuracy of devices with different ROC curves. In general, the device with the lowest EER is most accurate. In the context of Biometric Authentication almost all types of detection permit a system's sensitivity to be increased or decreased during an inspection process. If the system's sensitivity is increased, such as in an airport metal detector, the system becomes increasingly selective and has a higher
False Reject Rate (FRR).
Conversely, if the sensitivity is decreased, the False Acceptance Rate (FAR) will increase.
Thus, to have a valid measure of the system performance, the CrossOver Error Rate (CER) is
used.
The following are used as performance metrics for biometric systems:
false accept rate or false match rate (FAR or FMR): the probability that the system incorrectly
matches the input pattern to a non-matching template in the database. It measures the percent of
invalid inputs which are incorrectly accepted. In case of similarity scale, if the person is imposter in
real, but the matching score is higher than the threshold, then he is treated as genuine that
increase the FAR and hence performance also depends upon the selection of threshold value.
false reject rate or false non-match rate (FRR or FNMR): the probability that the system fails to
detect a match between the input pattern and a matching template in the database. It measures
the percent of valid inputs which are incorrectly rejected.
failure to enroll rate (FTE or FER): the rate at which attempts to create a template from an input is
unsuccessful. This is most commonly caused by low quality inputs.
failure to capture rate (FTC): Within automatic systems, the probability that the system fails to
detect a biometric input when presented correctly.
template capacity: the maximum number of sets of data which can be stored in the system.
Reference(s) used for this question:
KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of
Computer Security, 2001, John Wiley & Sons, Page 37
and
Wikipedia at: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Biometrics
NEW QUESTION 211
The IP address, 178.22.90.1, is considered to be in which class of
address?
- A. Class A
- B. Class D
- C. Class B
- D. Class C
Answer: C
Explanation:
The class A address range is 1.0.0.0 to 126.255.255.255. The class B
address range is 128.0.0.0 to 191.255.255.255. The class C address
range is from 192.0.0.0 to 223.255.255.255. The class D address range
is 244.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255, and is used for multicast packets.
Sources: Designing Network Security by Merike Kaeo (Cisco Press,
1999) and CCNA Study Guide by Todd Lammle, Donald Porter, and
James Chellis (Sybex, 1999).
NEW QUESTION 212
Which of the following modes of DES is MOST Likely used for Database Encryption
- A. Electronic Code Book(ECB)
- B. Output Feedback(OFB)
- C. Cipher Block Chaining(CBC)
- D. Cipher Feedback(CFB)
Answer: A
Explanation:
Because ECB mode works with blocks of data independently, data within a file does not have to be encrypted in a certain order. This is very helpful when using encryption in databases. A database has different pieces of data accessed in a random fashion.
If it is encrypted in ECB mode, then any record or table can be added, encrypted, deleted, or decrypted independently of any other table or record.
Other DES modes are dependent upon the text encrypted before them. This dependency makes it harder to encrypt and decrypt smaller amounts of text, because the previous encrypted text would need to be decrypted first.
Because ECB mode does not use chaining, you should not use it to encrypt large amounts of data, because patterns would eventually show themselves.
Some important characteristics of ECB mode encryption are as follows:
* Operations can be run in parallel, which decreases processing time.
* Errors are contained. If an error takes place during the encryption process, it only affects one block of data.
* Only usable for the encryption of short messages.
* Cannot carry out preprocessing functions before receiving plaintext.
The following answers are incorrect:
Cipher Block Chaining(CBC)
Cipher Feedback(CFB)
Output Feedback(OFB)
The following reference(s) were/was used to create this question:
Harris, Shon (2012-10-18). CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, 6th Edition (p. 803). McGraw-
Hill . Kindle Edition.
NEW QUESTION 213
What is the FIRST action a security professional needs to take while assessing an organization's asset security in order to properly classify and protect access to data?
- A. Verify if confidential data is protected with cryptography.
- B. Determine how data is accessed in the organization.
- C. Determine the level of access for the data and systems.
- D. Verify the various data classification models implemented for different environments.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 214
Which of the following access control models introduces user security clearance and data classification?
- A. Discretionary access control
- B. Role-based access control
- C. Non-discretionary access control
- D. Mandatory access control
Answer: D
Explanation:
The mandatory access control model is based on a security label system. Users are given a security clearance and data is classified. The classification is stored in the security labels of the resources. Classification labels specify the level of trust a user must have to access a certain file. Source: HARRIS, Shon, All-In-One CISSP Certification Exam Guide, McGraw-Hill/Osborne, 2002, Chapter 4: Access Control (Page 154).
NEW QUESTION 215
Where would an organization typically place an endpoint security solution?
- A. Intrusion Detection System (IDS) and central sever
- B. Intrusion Detection System (IDS) and web server
- C. Central server and individual devices
- D. Web server and individual devices
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 216
What should be the FIRST action for a security administrator who detects an intrusion on the network based on precursors and other indicators?
- A. Document and verify the intrusion.
- B. Notify system and application owners.
- C. Apply patches to the Operating Systems (OS).
- D. Isolate and contain the intrusion.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: Mixed questions
NEW QUESTION 217
Which of the following media is MOST resistant to tapping?
- A. twisted pair.
- B. coaxial cable.
- C. microwave.
- D. fiber optic.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Fiber Optic is the most resistant to tapping because Fiber Optic uses a light to
transmit the signal. While there are some technologies that will allow to monitor the line passively,
it is very difficult to tap into without detection sot this technology would be the MOST resistent to
tapping.
The following answers are in correct:
microwave. Is incorrect because microwave transmissions can be intercepted if in the path of the
broadcast without detection.
twisted pair. Is incorrect because it is easy to tap into a twisted pair line.
coaxial cable. Is incorrect because it is easy to tap into a coaxial cable line.
NEW QUESTION 218
One important tool of computer forensics is the disk image backup. The
disk image backup is:
- A. Copying the system files
- B. Conducting a bit-level copy, sector by sector
- C. Copying the disk directory
- D. Copying and authenticating the system files
Answer: B
Explanation:
Copying sector by sector at the bit level provides the capability to
examine slack space, undeleted clusters and possibly, deleted files.
With answer a, only the system files are copied and the other
information recovered in answer b would not be captured.
Answer "Copying the disk directory" does not capture the data on the disk, and answer
"Copying and authenticating the system files
" has the same problem as answer "Copying the system files". Actually, authenticating the system files is another step in the computer forensics process wherein a message digest is generated for all system directories and files to be able to validate the integrity of the information at a later time. This
authentication should be conducted using a backup copy of the disk
and not the original to avoid modifying information on the original.
For review purposes, computer forensics is the collecting of information from and about computer systems that is admissible in a court of law.
NEW QUESTION 219
Which one of the following control steps is usually NOT performed in data warehousing applications?
- A. Monitor summary tables for regular use.
- B. Control meta data from being used interactively.
- C. Monitor the data purging plan.
- D. Reconcile data moved between the operations environment and data warehouse.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Not B: It is important to control meta data from being used interactively by unauthorized users. "Data warehouses and data mining are significant to security professionals for two reasons. First, as previously mentioned, data warehouses contain large amounts of potentially sensitive information vulnerable to aggregation and inference attacks, and security practitioners must ensure that adequate access controls and other security measures are in place to safeguard this data." Pg 192 Tittel: CISSP Study Guide
Not C: "The data in the data warehouse must be maintained to ensure that it is timely and valid. The term data scrubbing refers to maintenance of the data warehouse by deleting information that is unreliable or no longer relevant." Pg 358-359 Krutz: The CISSP Prep Guide: Gold Edition Not D: "To create a data warehouse, data is taken from an operational database, redundancies are removed, and the data is "cleaned up" in general." Pg 358 Krutz: The CISSP Prep Guide: Gold Edition
NEW QUESTION 220
Why would a memory dump be admissible as evidence in court?
- A. Because of the exclusionary rule.
- B. Because the state of the memory cannot be used as evidence.
- C. Because it is used to identify the state of the system.
- D. Because it is used to demonstrate the truth of the contents.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A memory dump identifies the state of the system.
Computer-generated evidence that is in the form of routine operational business data or reports and binary disk or memory dumps now constitute exceptions to the rule that computer-generated evidence is hearsay, and is therefore admissible in court.
Incorrect Answers:
A: A memory dump does not identify the truth, it is identification of the state of the system.
C: The state of the memory, the system state, can be admissible as evidence in court.
D: The exclusionary rule refers to evidence that is inadmissible. The exclusionary rule is a legal principle in the United States, under constitutional law, which holds that evidence collected or analyzed in violation of the defendant's constitutional rights is sometimes inadmissible for a criminal prosecution in a court of law.
References:
Stewart, James M., Ed Tittel, and Mike Chapple, CISSP: Certified Information Systems Security Professional Study Guide, 5th Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2011, p. 504
NEW QUESTION 221
What is the MAIN reason to ensure the appropriate retention periods are enforced for data stored on electronic media?
- A. To declassify information that has been improperly classified
- B. To create an inventory of data assets stored on disk for backup and recovery
- C. To reduce the carbon footprint by eliminating paper
- D. To reduce the risk of loss, unauthorized access, use, modification, and disclosure
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 222
What is a decrease in amplitude as a signal propagates along a transmission medium BEST known as?
- A. Noise
- B. Attenuation
- C. Delay distortion
- D. Crosstalk
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Attenuation is the loss of signal strength (amplitude) as it travels. The longer a cable, the more attenuation occurs, which causes the signal carrying the data to deteriorate. This Incorrect Answers:
A: Crosstalk is not decrease in amplitude. Crosstalk is a phenomenon that occurs when electrical signals of one wire spill over to the signals of another wire.
B: Loss in signal strength is called attenuation. Noise does not affect signal strength.
C: Delay distortion does not affect signal strength.
References:
Harris, Shon, All In One CISSP Exam Guide, 6th Edition, McGraw-Hill, New York, 2013, p. 561
NEW QUESTION 223
Which of the following floors would be most appropriate to locate information processing facilities in a 6-stories building?
- A. Basement
- B. Ground floor
- C. Third floor
- D. Sixth floor
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 224
Which of the following is not used as a cost estimating technique during the project planning stage?
- A. Delphi technique
- B. Program Evaluation Review Technique (PERT) charts
- C. Function points (FP)
- D. Expert Judgment
Answer: B
Explanation:
"Methods and techniques for cost estimation: Experts' evaluation Delphi Bottom-up approaches Empirical models COCOMO Function Points Combining Methods"
NEW QUESTION 225
What is the BEST way to encrypt web application communications?
- A. Secure Hash Algorithm 1 (SHA-1)
- B. Transport Layer Security (TLS)
- C. Secure Sockets Layer (SSL)
- D. Cipher Block Chaining Message Authentication Code (CBC-MAC)
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: Software Development Security
NEW QUESTION 226
A storage information architecture does not address which of the following?
- A. use of data
- B. collection of data
- C. archiving of data
- D. management of data
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 227
Which of the following secures web transactions at the Transport Layer?
- A. Secure HyperText Transfer Protocol (S-HTTP)
- B. Secure Shell (SSH)
- C. Secure Sockets Layer (SSL)
- D. Socket Security (SOCKS)
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 228
Employee involuntary termination processing should include
- A. The surrender of any company identification.
- B. A list of all passwords used by the individual.
- C. Signing a non-disclosure agreement.
- D. A report on outstanding projects.
Answer: A
Explanation:
"Before the employee is released, all organization-specific identification, access, or security badges as well as cards, keys, and access tokens should be collected."
Pg. 173 Tittel: CISSP Study Guide
NEW QUESTION 229
DESX is a variant of DES in which:
- A. Input plaintext is bitwise XORed with 64 bits of additional key
material before encryption with DES, and the output of DES is also
bitwise XORed with another 64 bits of key material. - B. The input plaintext is encrypted X times with the DES algorithm
using different keys for each encryption. - C. The output of DES is bitwise XORed with 64 bits of key material.
- D. Input plaintext is bitwise XORed with 64 bits of additional key
material before encryption with DES.
Answer: A
Explanation:
DESX was developed by Ron Rivest to increase the resistance of
DES to brute force key search attacks; however, the resistance of
DESX to differential and linear attacks is equivalent to that of DES
with independent subkeys.
NEW QUESTION 230
......
What to Explore: (ISC)2 CISSP Exam Topics
The CISSP exam evaluates the applicants’ knowledge and expertise in a wide range of areas. The skills measured in this certification test are typically combined in 8 objectives that are listed below:
- Identity and Access Management (13%)
Within this domain, the information security professionals demonstrate that they know how to control the process of user access to data. This topic generally covers authorization mechanisms and logical and physical access to assets. It also involves the skills associated with the access and identity provisioning lifecycle, identification and authentication, and Identity-as-a-Service integration.
- Security Architecture and Engineering (13%)
This subject encompasses the individuals’ proficiency in implementing and designing physical security as well as mitigating and assessing vulnerabilities in systems. Also, the candidates need to know how to use secure design principles to accomplish engineering processes. Within this domain, they should be knowledgeable regarding the security capabilities of information systems and fundamental concepts of security models.
- Communications and Network Security (14%)
This objective encompasses the protection and design of the organization’s networks. This means that answering the questions in this area requires that the learners have knowledge of the processes that include securing communication channels, securing network components, and securing design principles for network infrastructure.
- Asset Security (10%)
Answering the questions from the second topic area, the test takers need to be well versed with all the physical requirements of information security. This means that they need to show that they have knowledge of ownership and classification of information and assets, as well as data security controls. In addition, they should be able to explain privacy, handling requirements, and retention periods.
- Security Operations (13%)
This section focuses on how plans are properly implemented. It specifically involves skills in incident management, business continuity, disaster recovery, and management of physical security. The candidates also need to demonstrate that they understand and can support investigations, as well as accomplish logging and monitoring activities. Besides that, they are required to prove that they have the ability to apply resource protection techniques and secure the provision of resources. The examinees also need to have a thorough understanding of the basic concepts of security operations and the requirements for investigation types.
- Security Assessment and Testing (12%)
In the framework of this subject, the focus is on the design, analysis, and performance of security testing. This includes test outputs, security control testing, and collecting security process data. Some questions from this area also require that the individuals demonstrate their expertise in the third-party and internal security audits as well as test and assessment strategies.
- Security and Risk Management (15%)
This is the first and largest domain in the (ISC)2 CISSP exam content, covering a comprehensive overview of everything one should know about information systems management. By answering the questions from this section, the students need to prove their knowledge of the confidentiality, availability, and integrity of information. They should also prove that they have a deep understanding of security governance principles, regulatory and legal issues related to information security, compliance requirements, risk-based management concepts, and IT policies and procedures.
- Software Development Security (10%)
Before answering the questions from this topic, the professionals need to understand software security and know how to apply and enforce it. In this last area, the individuals need to demonstrate that they have the ability to secure coding standards and guidelines and provide security controls in development environments. They also need to show that they can ensure the effectiveness of software security and ensure security in the lifecycle of software development.
What is the duration, language, and format of CISSP test: Certified Information Systems Security Professional
- Passing Score: 70%
- Length of Examination: 120 minutes
- Language: English
- Number of Questions: 60
- Type of Questions: Single and Multiple Choice.
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